Let Her Be Covered

by Don L. King

FOREWORD

Much of this material was presented by the author at the study held by the 21st Street church of Christ, Oklahoma City, Oklahoma, in December 1978. Having long believed that such a tract should be among our brethren, these thoughts are presented for thorough consideration. Thankfulness is here expressed for the encouragement of a number of preaching brethren in the publication of this material.

The material for thoughts you are invited to peruse has been gathered from many sources over the last several years. In some cases the source is remembered and credit duly given. In others, the years have obliterated recollection. However, many hours of study are represented by these thoughts.

*Only the God of heaven assuredly knows how many souls have been placed in jeopardy or lost by disobedience of 1 Corinthians 11: 2-16. It is believed that many disobey out of ignorance. They, hopefully, may truly benefit from this tract. Others, apparently, disobey rebelliously. May God bless them with a genuine desire to know the truth and obey Him whose word is truth.

Don L. King
41931 Chadbourne Dr.
Fremont, Ca. 94538

The covering which is verbally portrayed in 1 Corinthians 11: 246 has been (and still is) the ground upon which many polemical battles have been waged. Some believe a woman may cut or at least trim her hair while others do not. Some contend that an artificial veil or covering is bound by the apostle in addition to her hair. Still others believe that hair is the only covering designated by divine inspiration.

Allow me to state my position at the very beginning. I understand that the apostle speaks of "hair" as being given "instead of" or "to take the place of" a veil. I do not believe that a Christian woman may rightfully remove any part of her covering whether it is by cutting, breaking, burning or whatever. To do so is to disobey the apostle's inspired instructions in the verses before us.

It is extremely important that we study these verses without allowing some previous belief to interfere with our ability to learn the truths therein. One must not enter into a study of any Biblical topic with a wish to justify or defend some prior idea. Any reasonable person realizes that prior ideas will influence or color any subsequent deductions, if allowed to do so. Let us put away our preconceived notions and ideas and allow the Scriptures to speak for themselves. If all will do that, we can actually learn what God would have us to do. Remember that the Psalmist said, "The entrance of thy words giveth light; it giveth understanding unto the simple." (Psalms 119:130). Some seem to think that a tremendous knowledge of Greek is necessary for a proper understanding of our topic. I deny that. While it would certainly be an aid, it is not an essential. In this study, a number of Greek Lexicons, etc., will be used to help us along. However, we maintain that one may read his plain English Bible and with study arrive at the correct conclusion.

In order to understand the central theme of 1 Corinthians 11: 2-16, it is imperative to recognize the God-ordained rules regarding women from the beginning. We may be sure that it was with a complete and thorough knowledge of all rules that Paul wrote to the Corinthians. Consequently, they must be considered by us in our own study.

In the beginning after Adam and Eve had fallen prey to the subtle wiles of the devil, God had this to say to her: "...I will greatly multiply thy sorrow and thy conception; in sorrow thou shall bring forth children; and thy desire shall be to thy husband, and he shall rule over thee." (Genesis 3:16). Then in the New Testament Paul wrote, "But I suffer not a woman to teach, nor to usurp authority over the man, but to be in silence." (1 Timothy 2:12). The words "usurp authority" literally mean to "exercise authority." Marvin R. Vincent, Word Studies in the New Testament, says it should be rendered "to have or exercise dominion over." (vol. 4, p. 225). The point is that Paul will not allow a Christian women to domineer or exercise authority over the man. His apostolic directive is not in keeping with contemporary ideas, etc., but that is God's will in such matters! Again: "Let your women keep silence in the churches: For it is not permitted unto them to speak; but they are commanded to be under disobedience, as also saith the law." (1 Corinthians 14:34). When Paul wrote to Titus he declared of women that they should "...be discreet, chaste, keepers at home, good, obedient to their own husbands, that the word of God be not blasphemed." (Titus 2:51. Then to the Ephesians: "For the husband is the head of the wife even as Christ is the head of the church: and he is the saviour of the body." (Ephesians 5:231. The apostle Peter wrote of women being under subjection to their husbands and said: "Evenas Sarah obeyed Abraham, calling him lord:..." (1 Peter 3:6). Do you wonder what the word "lord" means in this place? It's from the Greek "kurios" which has a basic meaning of one who is "supreme in authority..." (Strong's Greek Dictionary of the New Testament p. 44, No. 2962), The same word is used of our Lord Jesus Christ. We do not imply here that a Christian woman must call her husband "lord." but she must certainly acknowledge him as being superior in authority! It she doesn't, she does not accept God's place for her. If we can manage to keep the above passages in mind as we proceed, it will help us more fully grasp God's will regarding women and their covering. Remember, that what Paul says about the covering for Christian women, he says with the assumption that a godly woman wilt recognize and accept her position as a Christian woman; and as such, she will be in subjection to the man. It is my understanding that the reason God demands his women to be covered at all is because He desires them to have a sign or token of their subjection to the man.

Since it is generally understood that verse 1 belongs to the context of chapter 10, we will begin our study with verse 2. This verse seems to be a conciliatory preface to the rather sharp and dogmatic instruction which follows. From the context, we imply that Paul had heard from the Corinthians previously. Notice: "Now I praise you, brethren, that ye remember me in all things, and keep the ordinances, as I delivered them to you." (verse 2). Dr. MacKnight in his Apostolic Epistles (p. 179). supposes that Paul had received a personal letter from them stating that they had restrained their women from publicly praying and prophesying and that it is to this news that Paul refers in verse 2. If there was such a letter; it has, of course, long since been lost. Whatever he had heard, Paul praises them in verse 2 for remembering him in all things and for keeping "the ordinances" as he had delivered. The word "ordinances" is rendered "traditions" in some translations. The general idea, however, is that the brethren had remembered his instructions, etc. Paul wisely praises them in those points in which they were worthy before getting down to the business at hand. Undoubtedly, preachers and teachers everywhere could learn a lesson from the apostle. It is much easier for anyone to receive a needed rebuke if they have been told some of their good points first.

In verse 3 Paul says: "But I would have you know, that the head of every man is Christ; and the head of the woman is the man; and the head of Christ is God." In this verse Paul lays the very basis for all that pertains to the covering of men and women: the headship. The whole of Paul's teaching in these verses appears to deal with: (1) authority; (2) recognition of authority and (3) the sign or token signifying recognition of higher authority.

Notice that verse 3 begins with the conjunction "but." We understand by the use of this word, that although Paul had praised them for their good points, he has more to say which may not necessarily be commendable. The headship of verse 3 put in simple form is: God is the head of Christ; Christ is the head of man, and man is the head of woman. Arranged in chart form:

1.GOD
2. CHRIST
3. MAN
4. WOMAN.

The apostle makes no reference in verse 3 to the physical head of anyone, as we see it. Rather, he intends that we understand the reference to be to the "head" which has power to govern. Hence, God has power to govern Christ; Christ power to govern man, and man has power to govern the woman. However, in verses 4 and 5 reference to both the physical and governing head is made. The first time "head" is used in these two verses it refers to the physical head, while the second time refers to the governing head. Notice verses 4 and 5: "Every man praying or prophesying, having his head (physical head-DLK) covered, dishonoreth his head. (Governing head or Christ, verse 3-DLK). But every woman that prayeth or prophesieth with her head (physical head-DLK) uncovered dishonoreth her head: (governing head or man-DLK) For that is even all one as if she were shaven."

There are, of course, reasons for the divine headship which is quite plainly stated for us in I Corinthians 11:3. While we do not claim to fully understand all that may be embraced within it. it is plain that it affects prayer and prophesying whether by men or women! (See again verses 4 and 5.) Anything so significant that it has an effect on our prayers and prophesying (teaching) deserves our earnest attention.

We all realize, perhaps, that it is a Bible fact that when we pray to the Father we must pray through Christ Jesus. Hear Paul: "And whatsoever ye do in word or deed, do all in the name of the Lord Jesus, giving thanks to God and the Father by him." (Colossians 3:171 Jesus said, "I am the way, the truth, and the life: no man cometh unto the Father but by me." (John 14:6) This not only indicates that our passage to Heaven and God must be by or through the church (the body of Christ: Colossians 1:18;) but additionally that our prayers must be by Him, or through Him. Hence we say, that in order for our prayers to be heard they must be prayed in and through the name of Christ. Now, consider the situation. When a man prays he can pray directly through Christ as he is immediately beneath Him in the line of authority. (See the chart again but what about the woman? There is, seemingly, a dilemrna; presented to her. She cannot pray through her head of authority to God, for her head is the man. (See the chart) What is to be done? We may be sure that God does not intend to allow her to ignore her position of authority. Yet if she prays through the man, she would certainly place him in a bad position. He would be dishonored by assuming such a lofty place. So, divine wisdom provides a solution. A Christian woman is to have her physical head covered. When she has it so, she shows her recognition of her head of authority; the man. Her prayers then may, apparently, by-pass the man and go through Christ as do the man's. Consequently, the "covering" is absolutely necessary for the woman. If we have entered this study with an open mind; however, we do not yet know of what it consists.

Allow me to return to a previous statement. "A Christian woman is to i have her physical head covered." Some declare that the word "covered" defines or at least implies an artificial veil or covering. The term I "covered" in the original text is "KATAKALUPTO." Please be careful to i note that this word is a verb. The verb "katakalupto" signfies to be covered, but it does not specify or define the covering itself! The term is actually a compound word made up of two words: "KATA" (a preposition meaning basically "down") and the verb: "KALUPTO" which simply signifies to cover. As we will point out later, the verb "KALUPTO" . may be found in a number of passages where it can not possibly even imply an artificial veil or covering. More on that later.

What is the "covering"? Does it really include an artificial veil or covering as many believe? Are there, in fact, two coverings mentioned in the Greek text? ("Hair" from the Greek noun "KOMEE" and, or plus, an artificial "veil" from the Greek noun Kalumma?) This is staunchly contended for by many honest men and women. Is it a Bible fact that an artificial veil ("kalumma") is to be worn in addition to a godly woman's natural covering or hair?

It is my understanding that Paul plainly tells us what the covering is ir this verse. Plain terms are used to express his thoughts. Truly, even the "simple" may receive "understanding" from this verse in the commonlj used King James Version. Let's read it again: "But if a woman have long hair, it is a glory to her: for her hair is given her for a covering." Could not anyone read and understand of what the covering consists? The apos tie simple says," ...her hair is given her for a covering." Is it possible tha a study of the various Greek terms will prove our deductions wrong? Le us see. "...Her hair is given her for a covering." Ironically, two nouns are found in this statement. (1) "Hair" (from the Greek noun "komee" which denotes the hair as an ornament); and, (2) "covering" (from the Greek noun "peribolaion" a veil or covering). Notice carefully: Paul says her "hair" (noun) is given "for" (Greek "avti" meaning anti, instead of or to take the place of) a "covering" (Greek noun "peribolaion). Does the Christian woman have an artificial veil or covering then? No, Paul says her hair has been given to take the place of that. Brother H.C. Harper used to illustrate the point something like this: "If a farmer tells his employee: 'today I am going to give you a spade instead of a hoe'; would the employee suppose that he was to utilize both the spade and the hoe? Of course not. He would know that when the spade was given him instead of a hoe that he would not be given the hoe at all! By the same token, then, a woman should understand that God has given her "hair" instead of a veil or covering (peribolaion). The veil is negated by the God-ordained hair. She does not have the artificial veil, but she does have her hair. One is bound, the other is not. If not, why not?

Sometimes, in a vain effort to dodge the plain directive in verse 15, an individual may say: "How long should a woman's hair be?" Apparently, those who ask such things suppose that no one can answer them. One brother was asked such a question once, and answered: "How long should a man's hair NOT be?" We need to remember that according to the apostle Paul, the man is not to have what the woman is to have. If we suppose that by asking such questions we make it impossible for the woman to know what she is to have, (long hair) then one must also assume that it is impossible for a man to know what he is not to have! (long hair).

The following is from the commentator, James Burton Coffman: "It is a glory to her...' This would have been the ideal place for Paul to have said that a mantle thrown over a woman's head and shoulders is a glory to her, if ever he had such a thing in mind. On the contrary, it comes out here, as it does in every verse in the whole passage, his subject was 'hair'! 'Her hair is given her for a covering...' Here again is an enormous mistranslation; and one may only wonder at the efforts of commentators to make this conform to the misinterpretations they have foisted upon this innocent passage. For example, Johnson declared that 'This does not mean that her hair is her covering'; but a glance at any interlinear Greek NT will reveal the meaning instantly. Nestle gives it, 'instead of a veil.' The Emphatic Diaglott has 'Her hair is given her instead of a veil.' The Emphatic Diaglott has 'Her hair is given her instead of a veil.' Echols emphatically stressed this expression 'instead of as follows:

As to what the Lord considers to constitute "long," it might help us to notice what is spoken of the subject in the Old Testament. For instance, read Numbers 6:5: "All the days of the vow of his seperation there shall no razor come upon his head: until the days be fulfilled, in which he separateth unto the Lord, he shall be holy, and shall let the locks of the hair of his head grow." (emphasis mine DLK.) In verse 7 the Bible says,"...because the consecration of God is upon his head." Both Adam Clarke and Matthew Henry in their Commentaries point out that there is a connection here to the hair in I Corinthians 11:10. Notice what Matthew Henry has to say: "...They must not cut their hair, v. 5. They must neither poll (meaning to shear or trim, DLK) their heads nor shave their beards; this was that mark of Samson's Nazariteship which we often read of in his story. Now, (1) this signified a noble neglect of the body and the ease and ornament of it, which became those who, being separated to God, ought to be wholly taken up with their souls, to secure their peace and beauty. (2) Some observe that long hair is spoken of as a badge of subjection (I Cor. 11:5, & etc.); so that the long hair of the Nazarites denoted their subjection to God, and their putting themselves under this dominion. "

Now we can return to the rest of the chapter. Let's pick up at verse 4 as there is some misunderstanding about the "covered" man spoken of in this verse. Paul said: "Every man praying or prophesying, having his head covered, dishonoureth his head." Here is where the misunderstanding of the passage develops. This clause as commonly rendered in the popular versions, is something of a commentary, not Bible. For instance, W.E. Vine says: "Note' In I Cor. 11:4, 'having his head covered' is, lit., 'having (something) down the head." (Vol. 1, p. 252.) Lenski also translates it: "having something down from his head." The Interlinear Greek-English New Testament (Nestle Text) by Marshall has: "Every man praying or prophesying having (anything) down over (his) head shames the head of him." The Emphatic Diaglott (Vatican Manuscript) by Benjamin Wilson has: "Every man praying or prophesying upon head having, disgraces the head of himself." As you can see, the nature or definition of the "something" or "anything" is neither stated nor implied in verse 4. Notice the following from the commentator, James Burton Coffman: "The logical understanding of this would refer it to 'long hair,' being long enough to hang down from the head, as clearly indicated by the apostle's words a moment later: 'If a man have long hair, it is a dishonour to him' (V. 14).

We can also understand verse 5 to mean that it is a shame, or sin, for a woman to pray or prophesy "uncovered." (This is from the Greek verb akatakaluptos: "...uncovered...with uncovered head...I Cor. 11: 5. In short...a woman without headcovering vs. 13"; Bauer, Arndt, Gingrich, Greek-English Lexicon of the New Testament, P.29.)

In verse 6 the apostle shows that if the woman be not "covered" (from the Greek verb "katakalupto": signifying to be covered, but not defining or specifying the material of the covering itself; we believe the context will show that the covering is her hair. D.L.K.) or does not allow her hair to grow, she is "also" to have it shorn or shaven. (The term "also" from the Greek "kai" is defined by Thayer: "...It marks something added to what has already been said, or that of which something already said holds good; accordingly it takes on the nature of an adverb, also... In this use it generally throws an emphasis upon the word which immediately follows it; ...1. used simply, a. also, likewise:...! Cor. 11:6, etc." p. 316.) My understanding of this verse is that if the woman's; hair is only partially there, if part of it is cut off, it may as well also be shaved close to the scalp. She will do herself no further damage in God's sight. So far as He is concerned, if she removes any part of her hair she is "uncovered." Consequently, she may as well shear it right off at the scalp. She will be no more "uncovered" in His sight than if she just "trimmed" it. God sees us as either "covered" or "uncovered." Notice the last portion of this verse: "...but if it be a shame for a woman to be shorn or shaven, let her be covered." Paul evidently assumes that his readers will agree that it is indeed a shame for her to be shorn or shaven. Hence, let her be covered. (Or, let the woman allow her hair to grow.) When she allows her hair to grow she attains that which is instead of a veil.

Paul continues in verse 7: "For a man indeed ought not to cover his head..." (The reference here is to the physical head. The word "cover" here is similar to the Greek verb "kalupto" meaning to cover, cover wholly, but not signifying or defining the material of the covering itself. For more concerning this verb "kalupto" see at the close of this tract under "Objections considered." DLK.) In other words, the apostle teaches that a man ought not to allow his hair to grow unhindered or uncut, because he is the image and glory of God: "...but the woman is the glory of the man."

Now notice verse 10. This is difficult and much disagreement has arisen about this passage. The writer certainly does not claim to have a full understanding either, but perhaps a look at various translations, etc. will shed some additional light for us.

In verse 11 the apostle seems to show that neither sex can be independent of the other, in the Lord. One is no less important, or loved in the sight of God. For, as he continues in verse 12, even though the first woman came from the man, all men since then have been born of women. God, of course, is the Creator of all things.

In many cases, those who contend for an artificial veil or "kaluma" (Greek noun for veil as per 2 Corinthians 3:13, etc.) believe that the type of "veil" is left up to our judgment. We are told that it is not specified so we may use whatever we like. It may be a hat, scarf, handkerchief, etc., etc. However, we submit that if indeed an artificial veil (kaluma) is taught in the earlier verses of this chapter, a simple hat or modern-day "veil" can never hope to qualify. The following is a definition of the Greek noun "kaluma" which many believe is at least implied in the context of 1 Corinthians 11:2-16: "a covering, especially the head covering of women, a hood or veil, hiding all the face, except the eyes, and falling upon the shoulders;..." (A Critical Lexicon and Concordance to the English and Greek New Testament, by Bullinger, p. 845.) Brethren, prove to us that the artificial veil is taught, and we will prove to you that it can be defined as above. If it is there at all, let us do our best to implement the definition of it too. We know of several good people who believe in the artificial veil for women in the church. However, we have never seen a veil which would fit the above description worn by anyone.

1. Some insist that the verb "katakalupto" (covered, cover, etc. verses 5-7, etc.) implies an additional artificial covering. That simply is not so. This Greek term is made up of two words. "Kata," a preposition meaning basically "down"; and the verb "kalupto" which means to cover. The Greek verb "kalupto" is used in a number of passages where its meaning (to cover) cannot possibly have reference to an artificial veil. Notice the following: